God’s specific foreknowledge has been discussed before. First I would ask “Is this a black and white, yes or no question?” Is the answer either He does, or He does not have specific foreknowledge?
The sides, if I remember correctly, seemed to be – if He does then it might/could mess with our agency situation. Or He does have some foreknowledge of some things but not specific. Or He’s very good at figuring out all the alternatives considering who He is dealing with and therefore predicts very accurately.
Whatever, I’m not here to re-hash the previous discussions, I just have a question.
According to the scriptures Isaiah prophecied that a man named Cyrus would deliver the jews from captivity. Isaiah wrote this about 500 years before Cyrus was even born. When Isaiah was read to Cyrus he was amazed to see that God had actually called him by name and what his destiny was to be for the jews. So Cyrus allowed them. even paid them to return to Jerusalem out of captivity.
According to some Bible scholars interpretation Daniel prophecied the exact day that Jesus would enter Jerusalem in His triumphal entry. And the exact day that the nation Israel would be again formed.
More specifically to us, in the Book of Mormon we have the prophecy of Joseph / Joseph (Smith Sr.) and Joseph (Smith Jr.)
I’m sure there are other examples of prophecy that is exact prophecy.
So my questions is: If you can have exact prophecy once (or several times for that matter) then does that show that God has specific foreknowledge? If not how is exact prophecy explained? If so then what does that mean to us…if anything?